Did the Father really forsake Jesus on the Cross? (cf. Psalm 22)
When one considers the 22nd Psalm, which Jesus was clearly quoting, it sheds light on a possible meaning. The first 21 verses have the Psalmist bemoaning his apparent loneliness. He doesn't understand why God doesn't answer him when he cries out to Him all day and night. He feels the Lord is far away and insensitive to his plight. Then suddenly, in the middle of verse 21, he interrupts this line of thought with the stark phrase: "You have answered me!" From there on out he says he will declare the name of God to his brethren, and sing songs of praise to Him. I get the impression that David was NEVER forsaken, but only felt that way for a time. Jesus, by quoting the first line of this familiar Psalm, could have been speaking "code" to his followers. Many thought he was forsaken, but anyone who knew this Psalm would know that wasn't the case. So MY opinion is that God did NOT forsake Jesus, nor did Jesus FEEL forsaken. He was merely reassuring his disciples that all was well.